5C) Indian Constitution (Prelims PYQs)

2023 Prelims PYQs

1] Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: [2023]

Statement-I:
The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II:
On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II arc correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

2022 Prelims PYQs

1] Consider the following statements: [2022]

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

2] If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? [2022]

a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people
b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area
c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory
d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State

2021 Prelims PYQs

1] What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950? [2021]

a) A Democratic Republic
b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

2020 Prelims PYQs

1] Consider the following statements: [2020]

1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

2] The Preamble to the Constitution of India is: [2020]

a) A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
b) Not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
c) A part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
d) A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

3] In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by: [2020]

a) The Preamble of the Constitution
b) A Directive Principle of State Policy
c) The Seventh Schedule
d) The conventional practice

2019 Prelims PYQs

1] The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of: [2019]

a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
c) Indira Gandhi
d) Morarji Desai

2] Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void? [2019]

a) Third Schedule
b) Fifth Schedule
c) Ninth Schedule
d) Twelfth Schedule

2018 Prelims PYQs

1] Consider the following statements: [2018]

1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India
2. The validity of law placed in Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

2] If President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then [2018]

a) The assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
b) The powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
c) Article 19 is suspended in that state.
d) The President can make laws relating to that state.

2017 Prelims PYQs

1] Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India? [2017]

a) Liberty of thought
b) Economic liberty
c) Liberty of expression
d) Liberty of belief

2] The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following? [2017]

a) The Preamble
b) The Fundamental Rights
c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
d) The Fundamental Duties

3] In India, Judicial Review implies: [2017]

a) The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
b) The power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
c) The power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
d) The power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.

4] Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State? [2017]

1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

2015 Prelims PYQs

1] The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to: [2015]

a) Protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
b) Determine the boundaries between states
c) Determine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats
d) Protect the interests of all the border States

2013 Prelims PYQs

1] Economic justice as one of the objectives of the Indian constitution has been provided in? [2013]

a) The preamble and the fundamental rights
b) The preamble and the directive principles of state policy
c) The fundamental rights and the directive principles of state policy
d) None of the above

2] Consider the following statements: [2013]

1. An amendment to the constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the constitution, the amendment also requires it to be ratified by the legislature of all the states of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

2012 Prelims PYQs

1] Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education? [2012]

1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 & 2 Only                      b) 3, 4, & 5 Only
c) 1, 2 & 5 only                  d) 1, 2, 3 ,4 & 5

2010-1995 Prelims PYQs

1] The “Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as: [2010]

a) Fundamental Rights
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) Extent of executive power of State
d) Conduct of business of the Government of India.

2] Which schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several  States? [2008]

a) Third                              
b) Fifth 
c) Seventh                        
d) Ninth

3] Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India:

1. A Proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of Two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolution of both houses of Parliament.
2. If any proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the president of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [2007]

a) 1 only                            b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2                 d) Neither 1 nor 2

4] Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India? [2006]

a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
b) Agriculture
c) Fisheries
d) Public health

5] Consider the following statements: [2006]

1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
2. The constitution of India does not define backward classes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only                            
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2                
d) Neither 1 nor 2

6] Consider the following statements: [2005]

1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 articles in the Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment)Acts.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2            b) 2 only
c) 3 only              d) 1, 2 and 3

7] Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India? [2004]

a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States.
b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution.
c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas.
d) It allocates seats in the Council of States.

8] With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? [2004]

a) Forests: Concurrent List
b) Stock Exchanges: Concurrent List
c) Post Office Saving Bank: Union List
d) Public Health: State List

9] Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union? [2004]

a) Article 257                     b) Article 258
c) Article 355                     d) Article 356

10] Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance’? [2003]

a) Article 215                     b) Article 275
c) Article 325                     d) Article 355

11] Match List I (Item in the Indian Constitution) with List II (Country from which it was derived) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list. [2003]

Codes:
— A  B C D
a)  5  4  1  2
b)  3  5  2  1
c)  5  4  2  1
d)  3  5  1  2

12] Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories?[2003]

a) First                 b) Second 
c) Third                d) Fourth

13] If a new State of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution must be amended? [2001]

a) First                 b) Second 
c) Third                d) Fifth

14] Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: [2001]

Codes:
a) I­A, II­B, III­C, IV­D        b) I­A, II­B, III­D, IV­E
c) I­B, II­A, III­C, IV­E        d) I­B, II­A, III­D, IV­C

15] Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every State to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education? [2001]

a) Article 349                    
b) Article 350
c) Article 350­A                
d) Article 351

16] Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India? [2001]

a) It lists the distribution of power between the Union and the States
b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
d) It allocates seats in the Council of States

17] The Constitution of India recognises: [1999]

a) Only religious minorities
b) Only linguistic minorities
c) Religious and linguistic minorities
d) Religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities

18] An amendment of the Constitution of India can be initiated by the: [1999]

I. Lok Sabha.
II. Rajya Sabha.
III. State Legislatures.
IV. President.

a) I alone                            b) I, II and III
c) II, III and IV                    d) I and II

19] Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding Anti ­Defection Act? [1998]

a) Second Schedule        b) Fifth Schedule
c) Eighth Schedule          d) Tenth Schedule

20] In the following quotation, “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens:

JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all;

FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’ ………. do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.” [1997]

‘X’ stands for

a) Twenty sixth day of January, 1950
b) Twenty sixth day of November, 1949
c) Twenty sixth day of January, 1949
d) None of the above

21] Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one half of the States? [1995]

I. Election of the President
II. Representation of States in Parliament
III. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
IV. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:
a) I, II and III                      b) I, II and IV
c) I, III and IV                     d) II, III and IV

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